Say I have a violin track playing at 0dB. I duplicate that track. So now I have 2 of exactly the same track playing.
Is having 2 of exactly the same track playing at 0dB, equivalent to just having 1 of that track playing at X dB? How much is X then? And will the character of the sound produced be exactly the same? Or will there be any difference if we are layering it?
And finally, what about if the 2 tracks are playing at 1dB, what would this be equivalent to a single track playing at?
Submitted May 07, 2018 at 08:12AM by 223am https://www.reddit.com/r/edmproduction/comments/8hmoxa/question_about_layering_exactly_the_same_sound/?utm_source=ifttt