E/C/G is second inversion, clear enough.
But why is C/E/G also a second inversion? Does that mean 3rd and 5th can be at any position, as long as the fifth is at the bottom?
Submitted March 10, 2021 at 04:56PM by ThinkOutsideSquare https://www.reddit.com/r/Learnmusic/comments/m26ty4/ecg_is_second_inversion_but_why_is_ceg_is_also_a/?utm_source=ifttt
Javier Rodriguez
Wednesday, March 10, 2021