I have a few questions about inversions discused in the book 'Dance Music Manual' by Rick Snoman. This extract is from pg 28/29 of the Third Edition:
Due to inversions sharing similarities with the original chord, they're most often used to introduce some variety and are commonly introduced in the middle of a pair of chords that are creating a strong progression. By inserting a first or second inversion between these, the inversion becomes known as a passing chord, since it provides the feeling of passing over to the next note in the progression.
For these passing chords, does he mean that we play a chord, then play an inversion of that same chord, then move to a different chord? e.g. IV - IV(inverted) - V? Or does he mean play a chord, play a different chord in an inversion, and then move to a third different chord? e.g. IV - ii(inverted) - vi?
Also are passing chords usually the same length as your 'regular' chords or do you shorten them to quickly pass through?
He continues:
However, inversions should be used sparingly and with some forethought to the harmonic journey of the music.
Probably roughly half the chords I use in my progressions are inversions. I understand that there are no 'hard' rules when it comes to making music, but do most producer's use them sparingly like he says? I never realised they were supposed to give such a different feel.
And finally:
Inversions will often introduce a progressively unnatural or weaker sounding progression with movement from the original chord to the second inversion being the weaker of the two. This style of inversion and progression is not as weak as other chords with less of relationship, but they nevertheless do come across as unstable, and therefore, they shouldn't be used to end a progression.
Are they really that much weaker? I often end on an inverted chord. Also he talks about 'movement from the original chord to the second inversion' so is he talking about a chord progression e.g. ii - ii(inverted)? Or does he mean just using an inverted chord makes whatever your progression is weaker. e.g. IV - ii(inverted) being weaker than IV - ii?
I need some clarity on exactly what he means, and want to know if the general guidelines (I know rules can be broken) are good here? Or if this is bullshit. Thanks!
Submitted May 18, 2017 at 05:27AM by 223am https://www.reddit.com/r/edmproduction/comments/6buwm1/when_to_use_inversions_as_discussed_in_dance/?utm_source=ifttt