Why do chord inversions keep the same name when the note is no longer the lowest note? Why not name it for the note that becomes the “new” lowest note?

For example the C chord has C E G with C being the lowest note and therefore it is called a “C” chord.

But if you invert it and C is no longer the lowest note, why is it still a C chord? Why is it not called an E chord if the E is now the lowest note?

Submitted March 15, 2025 at 03:02AM by moby323 https://www.reddit.com/r/Learnmusic/comments/1jbomz3/why_do_chord_inversions_keep_the_same_name_when/?utm_source=ifttt

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Why do chord inversions keep the same name when the note is no longer the lowest note? Why not name it for the note that becomes the “new” lowest note?

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