(Hopefully this question fits here.)
Specifically the 2nd movement, but I see that in the 3rd movement something weird is going on as well.
So, the harp goes in major seconds. I thought maybe it's supposed to be a sus 2 chord, but with the string section it actually goes D-E-G on beat 2, C-D-E on beat 3.
Is this intentionally creating dissonance? Boléro has never appeared dissonant to me. The melody is major at least, right?
If the harp played just the lower note, it would go in fifths with the strings, which I would get.
Anyway, is there some way to explain what Ravel is doing other than he liked the sound?
Submitted October 14, 2024 at 09:25AM by MeekHat https://www.reddit.com/r/Learnmusic/comments/1g3egox/what_is_the_point_of_harp_harmonics_in_ravels/?utm_source=ifttt